Respuesta :

Answer:

3 : 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] : [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex] ( multiply both parts of the ratio by 6 , the LCM, of 2 and 3 )

= 3 : 2

nanrugwiro9

1/2:1/3

multiply the first fraction by the inverse of the second

1/2×3/2=3/2

the answer is 3:2

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