abhisheksubeesh abhisheksubeesh

22-02-2018
Mathematics

contestada

Can one angle of a parallelogram be equal to 40° and another one 50°? Justify your reasoning.

Respuesta :

jcherry99 jcherry99

22-02-2018

Short answer: No! <<=====
If the two are one after another, then they are not supplementary, which a parallelogram requires.

If they are in opposite corners, they must be equal. That's another property of parallelograms.

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Why is the federal income tax a progressive tax?

identify the entire participial phrase read the sentence. enjoying her new flute, tammy smiled happily and skipped all the way home.

The following are events or stages in the history of the british isles. arrange them in chronological order, first to last, based on when they occurred. anglo-s

Which of the following can be used as "reasons" in a two-column proof? given inductive reasoning definitions algebraic properties

What is one reason that Thomas Paine brings up the opposing argument that the colonies have been well protected by the British? A. To show his opponents that

why are the densities of corn syrup and gasoline expressed as a range of values

What is the purpose of the class discussion?

what effect does "a" have on a fuction f(x)=a(x-h)^2+k

What surrounds a basin?

Which organelles can be found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes